SABBATH...

[Capbook]

Is the Lord's Sabbath in the OT still for God's people in the NT?

Luk 23:56 And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested the sabbath day according to the commandment

[Capbook]

Peace to you,

Is the Lord's Sabbath in the OT still for God's people in the NT?

Luk 23:56 And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested the sabbath day according to the commandment

Since you added a verse as an example, I assume you are referring to a Sabbath DAY. But what about Sabbath weeks, years, months, feasts?

**

What about Romans 14, Galatians 4, Colossians 2?

One person considers one day more sacred than another; another considers every day alike. Each of them should be fully convinced in their own mind. 6Romans 14:5

Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. 17 These are a shadow of the things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ. Galatians 4:16-17

Formerly, when you did not know God, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods. 9 But now that you know God—or rather are known by God—how is it that you are turning back to those weak and miserable forces[d]? Do you wish to be enslaved by them all over again? 10 You are observing special days and months and seasons and years! 11 I fear for you, that somehow I have wasted my efforts on you. Colossians 2: 8-11


I'm just curious where people draw the line and why there?

**

I did see the term "The Lord's day" mentioned somewhere in this thread. If people are getting that term from Revelation, then perhaps some have not considered (or asked Christ) if:

The Lord's Day = the Day of the Lord.

John was in the spirit on the Lord's day (on the day of the Lord), and saw things that happen on that Day.



Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

I am referring to "the Sabbath" not "a Sabbath" in Exodus 20:8-11.
Romans 14:5 the verse does not mentioned the Sabbath.
Galatians 4:16,17 does not talked about the Sabbath as well;
Col 2:8-11, I believe you misquote verses.

Gal 4:16 Am I therefore become your enemy, because I tell you the truth?
Gal 4:17 They zealously affect you, but not well; yea, they would exclude you, that ye might affect them.

Col 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
Col 2:9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
Col 2:10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:
Col 2:11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ

[1213]

...he says "ies dikaiosynēn" meaning "for" or "for the purpose of ..." righteousness. ...

Thanks, I think that confirms what I said. Previously people thought they can become righteous by obeying the law. And it was wrong idea. Person doesn't become righteous by obeying the law. Person can be counted righteous, if he obeys the law freely, because he understands it is good. Jesus and Paul are both against the idea that law could make a person righteous. It does not mean that the law is not valid or good.

[JehovahsWitness]

...he says "ies dikaiosynēn" meaning "for" or "for the purpose of ..." righteousness. ...

Thanks, I think that confirms what I said. Previously people thought they can become righteous by obeying the law. And it was wrong idea.

No it does not confirm what you said. The verse does not say , "obey the law for the purpose of righteousness", it says END THE LAW for the purpose of righteousness for everyone.

Please re-read post #74: viewtopic.php?p=1154295#p1154295

[JehovahsWitness]

Person can be counted righteous, if he obeys the law freely, because he understands it is good.

1. When you say "the law" are you referring to the Mosaic law?
2. If you mean a person that freely obeys the MOSAIC law can be declared righteousness, please explain the following scripture...

GALATIANS 3:11

... by law no one is declared righteous with God

3. Did Paul say there were exceptions for the above if a person obeys the law freely, because he understands it is good ?

JW

[rstrats]

[quote=tam

What about Romans 14...?
[/quote]


As Capbook mentioned, that verse, nor elsewhere in the chapter, says anything about the Sabbath. Verse 6 explains to what verse 5 is referring; that the verse is talking about eating or not eating on certain days of the week. There just isn't any reason here for thinking that Paul is talking about the Sabbath. The specific reason that Paul wrote the chapter is summed up in verse 20: "Do not destroy the work of God for the sake of food".

Look, I'm not advocating here for the keeping of the Sabbath. I'm merely pointing out that Romans 14 isn't appropriate as one of the proof texts for saying that Sabbath observance doesn't apply to Christians.

[tam]

Peace to you,

Peace to you,

Is the Lord's Sabbath in the OT still for God's people in the NT?

Luk 23:56 And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested the sabbath day according to the commandment

Since you added a verse as an example, I assume you are referring to a Sabbath DAY. But what about Sabbath weeks, years, months, feasts?

**

What about Romans 14, Galatians 4, Colossians 2?

One person considers one day more sacred than another; another considers every day alike. Each of them should be fully convinced in their own mind. 6Romans 14:5

Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. 17 These are a shadow of the things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ. Galatians 4:16-17

Formerly, when you did not know God, you were slaves to those who by nature are not gods. 9 But now that you know God—or rather are known by God—how is it that you are turning back to those weak and miserable forces[d]? Do you wish to be enslaved by them all over again? 10 You are observing special days and months and seasons and years! 11 I fear for you, that somehow I have wasted my efforts on you. Colossians 2: 8-11


I'm just curious where people draw the line and why there?

**

I did see the term "The Lord's day" mentioned somewhere in this thread. If people are getting that term from Revelation, then perhaps some have not considered (or asked Christ) if:

The Lord's Day = the Day of the Lord.

John was in the spirit on the Lord's day (on the day of the Lord), and saw things that happen on that Day.



Peace again to you,
your servant and a slave of Christ,
tammy

I am referring to "the Sabbath" not "a Sabbath" in Exodus 20:8-11.
Romans 14:5 the verse does not mentioned the Sabbath.
Galatians 4:16,17 does not talked about the Sabbath as well;
Col 2:8-11, I believe you misquote verses.

I did misquote, I apologize.

Galatians should be 4:9-11 and Colossians 2:16-17. I wrote the actual verses out correctly, but attributed them incorrectly.


I am sorry for the confusion.

Peace again to you.

[1213]

Person can be counted righteous, if he obeys the law freely, because he understands it is good.

1. When you say "the law" are you referring to the Mosaic law?
2. If you mean a person that freely obeys the MOSAIC law can be declared righteousness, please explain the following scripture...

GALATIANS 3:11

... by law no one is declared righteous with God

3. Did Paul say there were exceptions for the above if a person obeys the law freely, because he understands it is good ?

I have understood Paul's point is, you don't become righteous by obeying the mosaic law. However, if person obeys the law, because he understands it is good, that can be counted righteousness for him, because it shows the right understanding, wisdom of the just. It is important to understand, righteous actions are the result of a righteous mind. Not so that righteous mind comes from doing righteous things. If person has the righteous mind, it will show in his actions and the actions show what kind of person one is.

[JehovahsWitness]

Person can be counted righteous, if he obeys the law freely, because he understands it is good.

1. When you say "the law" are you referring to the Mosaic law?
2. If you mean a person that freely obeys the MOSAIC law can be declared righteousness, please explain the following scripture...

GALATIANS 3:11

... by law no one is declared righteous with God

I have understood Paul's point is, you don't become righteous by obeying the mosaic law. However, if person obeys the law, because he understands it is good, that can be counted righteousness for him, because it shows the right understanding, wisdom of the just. It is important to understand, righteous actions are the result of a righteous mind. Not so that righteous mind comes from doing righteous things. If person has the righteous mind, it will show in his actions and the actions show what kind of person one is.

1. When you say "the law" are you referring to the Mosaic law? (I ask because I am not convinced you know the difference between the Mosaic law and the law of Christ.) Would you be kind enough to clarify which you are referring to?

2. Since Paul wrote " ...by law no one is declared righteous with God" but you take that To mean some are declared righteous by law. What would need to be written in the bible to convince you that by law absolute no one, without exception is declared righteous with God?

3. If we can be declared righteous with God by obeying the Mosaic law ...why do we need Christ?

[1213]

1. When you say "the law" are you referring to the Mosaic law? (I ask because I am not convinced you know the difference between the Mosaic law and the law of Christ.) Would you be kind enough to clarify which you are referring to?

I think it means at least the ten commandments. And I believe it means all the Mosaic law.

2. Since Paul wrote " ...by law no one is declared righteous with God" but you take that To mean some are declared righteous by law. What would need to be written in the bible to convince you that by law absolute no one, without exception is declared righteous with God?

3. If we can be declared righteous with God by obeying the Mosaic law ...why do we need Christ?

I mean, person can be declared righteous, if he shows he has righteous mind. Obeying the law can show person has the righteous mind. It does not mean that if one just obeys the law, he will be counted righteous, for example because it can be done with wrong reasons.

Jesus came to preach the good news. He is needed, if one has sin or lives in sin. But, obviously, if one is perfect, he doesn't need that. I don't think any human is perfect.

For God didn't send his Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world should be saved through him. He who believes in him is not judged. He who doesn't believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the one and only Son of God. This is the judgment, that the light has come into the world, and men loved the darkness rather than the light; for their works were evil. For everyone who does evil hates the light, and doesn't come to the light, lest his works would be exposed. But he who does the truth comes to the light, that his works may be revealed, that they have been done in God."
John 3:17-21

"The Spirit of the Lord is on me, Because he has anointed me to preach good news to the poor. He has sent me to heal the bro-kenhearted, To proclaim release to the captives, Recovering of sight to the blind, To deliver those who are crushed, And to pro-claim the acceptable year of the Lord."… …"I must preach the good news of the Kingdom of God to the other cities also. For this reason I have been sent."
Luke 4:18-19, 43

[JehovahsWitness]

1. When you say "the law" are you referring to the Mosaic law? (I ask because I am not convinced you know the difference between the Mosaic law and the law of Christ.) Would you be kind enough to clarify which you are referring to?

... I believe it means all the Mosaic law.

2. Since Paul wrote " ...by law no one is declared righteous with God" but you take that To mean some are declared righteous by law. What would need to be written in the bible to convince you that by law absolute no one, without exception is declared righteous with God?

3. If we can be declared righteous with God by obeying the Mosaic law ...why do we need Christ?

I mean, person can be declared righteous, if he shows he has righteous mind.

What words in what Paul wrote on this question support your reading ?

GALATIANS 3:11

All those who depend on works of law are under a curse, for it is written: “Cursed is everyone who does not remain in all the things written in the scroll of the Law by doing them.”+ 11 Moreover, it is evident that by law no one is declared righteous with God, because “the righteous one will live by reason of faith.”+ 12 Now the Law is not based on faith. Rather, “anyone who does these things will live by means of them.”+ 13 Christ purchased us,+ releasing us+ from the curse of the Law by becoming a curse instead of us,+ because it is written: “Accursed is every man hung upon a stake.”