"Slavery" in the Bible

[POI]

Allow us readers to be very careful. We must make sure we identify the proper context here, to assure against hasty and/or self-serving conclusions.

Exodus 21:2-3:

"2 "If you buy a Hebrew servant, he is to serve you for six years. But in the seventh year, he shall go free, without paying anything. 3 If he comes alone, he is to go free alone; but if he has a wife when he comes, she is to go with him." <-- Okay, this seems clear enough, if you are a purchased Hebrew, with a wife, you are both to go free in year 7.

Exodus 21:4:

"4 If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the woman and her children shall belong to her master, and only the man shall go free." <-- Here is where things start to look sketchy for the modern-day believer. If the slave is provided with a wife, and they have kids, the wife and kids are to stay with the slave master. They are not to go free.

Exodus 21:5-6:

"5 "But if the servant declares, I love my master and my wife and children and do not want to go free, 6 then his master must take him before the judges.[a] He shall take him to the door or the doorpost and pierce his ear with an awl. Then he will be his servant for life." <-- More uncomfortability for the Christian here. Without getting into the weeds, common sense suggests a special rule is made to trick the male Hebrew into remaining a slave for life.

Leviticus 25:44-46:

"44 "Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly." <-- More awkwardness for the believer, as the Bible reader clammers to find a rationale to make this passage not read the way it does.

Here is a basic definition of chattel slavery --> "Chattel slavery is full slavery in its traditional form whereby slaves are the complete property of their master, can be bought and sold by him and treated in any way that he wishes, which may include torture and other brutality, excessively bad working conditions, and sexual exploitation"

Looks like all the ingredients fit the given Bible description here, minus the torture. Wait a minute, this is covered in the rest of Exodus 21. (i.e.):

"20 "Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slave dies as a direct result, 21 but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property." <-- So basically, since the slave is your property, beatings with impunity are acceptable. Just don't kill them.

For debate:

By applying common sense, does/did the Bible ever, and/or currently still sanction chattel slavery?

Again, by using common sense, can a believer effectively use the Bible in support of breeding chattel slaves?

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Before you answer, consider this.... Since the NT does not mention the abolition of 'slavery', and yet the Bible makes further proclamation(s) and/or addendums (in favor of retaining 'slavery',) this means the Bible is not against chattel slavery either. Further, the Christian may want to introduce the importance of the 'golden rule'. However, the specifics outweigh the generals. The specifics of the rules for engagement of slavery are outside the 'golden rule'. Otherwise, the Bible would be a one-pager. 'Slavery' is an expressed exception to the general rule. Thus, anytime a specific scenario is not invoked, yes, 'golden rule.'

[marke]

It does appear that Jesus never condemned the ancient practice of selling souls into slavery to avoid financial destitution and starvation.

1) Where, in the Bible, does it express that slavery was condoned solely to help the poor?
2) The Bible's best solution, to help the poor, was to condone for them to be sold into lifetime chattel slavery, and treated as property, for life?

Marke: 1) Jesus never encouraged or instructed Christians to engage in slavery 2) and we can be sure He did not approve of wicked theft of humans for slavery and the wicked abuse of slaves, 3) so I can ony assume when Jesus did not condemn slavery He was not condemning the ancient practice of slavery as an alternative to starvation.

1) The Bible did -> (Leviticus 25:44-46) 44 "Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. 45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can bequeath them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.

2) You responded to the OP. I never spoke about kidnapping. I spoke about slave breeding, in which the Bible condones as well. A bred slave is not a kidnapped slave.

3) This is a wild assumption. Such condoned slavery practices were not confined to help the poor. You can start by re-reading the OP.

I ask again (2nd request):

The Bible's best solution, to help the poor, was to condone for them to be sold into lifetime chattel slavery, and treated as property, for life?

Marke: Jesus cannot be quoted from the book of Leviticus.

[POI]

Marke: Jesus cannot be quoted from the book of Leviticus.

"Not a letter of the law will be erased," comes from the Bible, specifically Matthew 5:18, where Jesus says, "18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.".

Meaning: This verse signifies that even the smallest detail of the law will remain in effect until everything is fulfilled, emphasizing the importance of following the law completely and not dismissing any part of it as insignificant.

[marke]

Marke: Jesus cannot be quoted from the book of Leviticus.

"Not a letter of the law will be erased," comes from the Bible, specifically Matthew 5:18, where Jesus says, "18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.".

Meaning: This verse signifies that even the smallest detail of the law will remain in effect until everything is fulfilled, emphasizing the importance of following the law completely and not dismissing any part of it as insignificant.

Marke: You consistently show a lack of understanding between the Old Covenant and the New Covenant.

Colossians 2:13-15
King James Version
13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;

14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

15 And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.

[POI]

Marke: Jesus cannot be quoted from the book of Leviticus.

"Not a letter of the law will be erased," comes from the Bible, specifically Matthew 5:18, where Jesus says, "18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.".

Meaning: This verse signifies that even the smallest detail of the law will remain in effect until everything is fulfilled, emphasizing the importance of following the law completely and not dismissing any part of it as insignificant.

Marke: You consistently show a lack of understanding between the Old Covenant and the New Covenant.

Colossians 2:13-15
King James Version
13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;

14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

15 And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.

Nothing you offered refutes Matthew 5:18. Further, are we supposed to ignore the entire OT, or just the parts which make us uncomfortable?

[marke]

Marke: Jesus cannot be quoted from the book of Leviticus.

"Not a letter of the law will be erased," comes from the Bible, specifically Matthew 5:18, where Jesus says, "18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.".

Meaning: This verse signifies that even the smallest detail of the law will remain in effect until everything is fulfilled, emphasizing the importance of following the law completely and not dismissing any part of it as insignificant.

Marke: You consistently show a lack of understanding between the Old Covenant and the New Covenant.

Colossians 2:13-15
King James Version
13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;

14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

15 And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it.

Nothing you offered refutes Matthew 5:18. Further, are we supposed to ignore the entire OT, or just the parts which make us uncomfortable?

Marke:
Matthew 5:18
For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
Galatians 5:4
Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.

[POI]

[Replying to marke in post #605]

Since you obviously have no response:

3rd request: (Even though you have not demonstrated, in the least, that slavery was only condoned for the poor).... But I'm throwing you a large bone anyways...

The best solution the Bible can offer for the poor. is to condone lifetime chattel slavery, and for the poor to be treated as property, for life?

[1213]

...They can instead lawfully be forced. Hence, like I stated prior, if Christian slavery is said to be safe and loving, (like in the video), why then create a law about running away? Further, if the slave master is providing safety and love, why not instruct that the slave be returned to the master?

Because the "love your neighbor as yourself" means the slave must be let go, if he doesn't want to be in his position. If a slave escapes, it likely means the owner is not living by God's rules.

...This means no hope for retirement, vacation, days off, restricted work hours, and/or any hope for the future. Just work until they cannot work anymore. And then, this is likely when the real beatings start, with instructed impunity for the master doing so...

I can imagine that is how you would do. And that is why it is good that you can't have slaves. However, if person goes by the "love your neighbor as yourself", that would not be true.

[POI]

...They can instead lawfully be forced. Hence, like I stated prior, if Christian slavery is said to be safe and loving, (like in the video), why then create a law about running away? Further, if the slave master is providing safety and love, why not instruct that the slave be returned to the master?

Because the "love your neighbor as yourself" means the slave must be let go, if he doesn't want to be in his position. If a slave escapes, it likely means the owner is not living by God's rules.

I already spoke to this as early as the first post. You are going to have to do way better than this insufficient answer. Please share where the Bible discloses that all slavery practices are volitional. If you cannot, then either me and/or Benchwarmer already debunked your response. I've posted many slavery passages, and none of them express the required voluntary status of the slave. Again, this is just your wishful thinking.

I can imagine that is how you would do. And that is why it is good that you can't have slaves. However, if person goes by the "love your neighbor as yourself", that would not be true.

This is you, again, trying to place a bunch of sugar or honey on the term 'slave.' Sure, 'slave' can be used in all types of contexts. But I specified, in the first post, what it means for the context of this thread. The 'slave' is the master's property, for life. This means it is quite a bit more than what you claim a 'slave' would be in option a). Such slaves are never let go, and have no future, and are not protected by labor laws, and are not protected from harm. Again, you are either being completely dishonest, or, you need to severely study up.

[POI]

Christians, what do you say here? a), b), c), d), other?

Repost from 493.

Just for fun... Let's see if we can find all the ways in which this content creator is:

x) being deliberately misleading...
y) and/or completely ignorant to the book he studies

The video is less than 5 minutes.



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7 "FACTS" given by this sleazy content creator:

1) God did not create slavery, but regulated it.
2) The purpose of slavery in the Bible was to help the poor
3) In the Hebrew culture, slavery was volitional
4) Kidnapping was not permitted
5) Slavery was limited to 6 years, (in a safe and loving environment)
6) Masters were to treat their slaves with respect
7) Israelites are servants

Good day Bible believers. Any of you wish to tell me which option best fits this content creator's position(s), and why? Above are his seven claims:

a) He is correct, and skeptics have the Bible all wrong -- who disagree with the above 7 claims.
b) He is incorrect, and he knows it.
c) He is incorrect, but genuinely believes he is correct.
d) He possesses a combination of both b) and c).

[marke]

[Replying to marke in post #605]

Since you obviously have no response:

3rd request: (Even though you have not demonstrated, in the least, that slavery was only condoned for the poor).... But I'm throwing you a large bone anyways...

The best solution the Bible can offer for the poor. is to condone lifetime chattel slavery, and for the poor to be treated as property, for life?

God gave instructions to the Jews concerning slavery in the OT. Slavery was common in civilizations in ancient times. What God commanded about slaves was right for the Jews in those days.