What is "a god?"

[placebofactor]

Men have imagined many myths, legends, idols, gods, goddesses, heroes, demons, angels, saints, sun gods, moon gods, the gods of the hills, and the thousands of gods of ancient Egypt, Assyria, Persia, Babylon, Greece, and Rome; if gathered together in one place their images would fill the Smithsonian or the Colosseum in Rome.

There are those on this forum that claim Jesus Christ is not the true God. If this is true, he must be a false god like all other gods mentioned above because there is only one true God. And if Jesus is only “a god” what is he the god of?

My Bible claims the true God or Jehovah as some prefer to call him is perfect in power, wisdom, and goodness and is to be worshipped by his faithful followers. The LORD is both the Creator and ruler of the universe; and in the Old Testament, he is called, “I Am, Elohim, or Jehovah.”

So, if Jesus Christ is only “a god,” he is not worthy of any Christian’s love, honor, or respect.

Some claim we can pay obeisance to Jesus, but we cannot worship him. If we can pay obeisance to Jesus who is only "a god," why would it be wrong to bow a knee to any man who claims to be God, or even Satan who is the prince of the power of the air?

[A Freeman]

A "god" is a term used to describe the created, spiritual offspring of God, Who Himself is a Spiritual-Being (Num. 23:19; John 4:24).

If a cat had a son, what would that son be? A cat.
If a dog had a son, what would that son be? A dog.
If a horse had a son, what would that son be? A horse.
If a man had a son, what would that son be? A man.
If God has a son, what would that son be? A god.

A god = a spiritual-Being = a Soul = an angel = a jinn = a Being of Light/Fire

Psalm 82:6 I have said, Ye [are] gods; and all of you (your spirit-Beings) [are] children of the Most High.

John 10:34-36
10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your Law, I said, Ye are gods?
10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the Word of God came, and the Scripture cannot be broken;
10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

Yes, lower case cat, the son lowercase cat.
Yes, lowercase dog, the son lowercase dog.
Yes, lowercase horse, the son lowercase horse.
Yes, lowercase man, the son lowercase man.
Why uppercase God, the son lowercase god? Why and explain. Why Arians cannot apply same honest logical comparison above?

Why do you feel you need to ask this question please given the context?

There is only one God (upper case G) and the Children of the Most High are referred to as "gods" (lower case "g") in Scripture. Are you questioning the Scripture which, as Jesus said, cannot be broken?

Why you can't follow your honest and logical comparison above?
I believe you will be the one to question the original wordings of the John 1:18, supported by the oldest manuscripts the papyrus 66 and papyrus 75. Jesus as the only-begotten God.
While there are other readings but was not described as the "original words".

Jhn 1:18  R1 No G3762  one G3762  has seen G3708  God G2316  at any G4455  time G4455 ;  R2 the only G3439  begotten G3439  God G2316  who is  R3 in the bosom G2859  of the Father G3962 ,  R4 He has explained G1834  Him.

There is no such thing as "a begotten God"

The word "begotten" means "brought into existence", i.e. in this context CREATED, just as the word "born" does.

Clearly our self-existing God cannot be "born", much less be born as a human son, as God Himself said (Num. 23:19).

Numbers 23:19 God [is] not a man, that He should lie; neither the son of man, that He should repent: hath He said, and shall He not do [it]? or hath He spoken, and shall He not make it good?

So, is it really logical to ignore hundreds of verses to adopt a private interpretation of a single verse, as you are doing? Doesn't logic and Scripture both dictate that there MUST be multiple witnesses that AGREE.

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [Him].

There were thousands upon thousands of people who saw Jesus. How can anyone logically deduce from the above verse (in its original Greek text or translated into English) that God can be both invisible and visible at the same time?

Can you not LOGICALLY see the self-contradictory nature of your private interpretation, and why it makes absolutely no sense whatsoever?

[Capbook]

A "god" is a term used to describe the created, spiritual offspring of God, Who Himself is a Spiritual-Being (Num. 23:19; John 4:24).

If a cat had a son, what would that son be? A cat.
If a dog had a son, what would that son be? A dog.
If a horse had a son, what would that son be? A horse.
If a man had a son, what would that son be? A man.
If God has a son, what would that son be? A god.

A god = a spiritual-Being = a Soul = an angel = a jinn = a Being of Light/Fire

Psalm 82:6 I have said, Ye [are] gods; and all of you (your spirit-Beings) [are] children of the Most High.

John 10:34-36
10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your Law, I said, Ye are gods?
10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the Word of God came, and the Scripture cannot be broken;
10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

Yes, lower case cat, the son lowercase cat.
Yes, lowercase dog, the son lowercase dog.
Yes, lowercase horse, the son lowercase horse.
Yes, lowercase man, the son lowercase man.
Why uppercase God, the son lowercase god? Why and explain. Why Arians cannot apply same honest logical comparison above?

Why do you feel you need to ask this question please given the context?

There is only one God (upper case G) and the Children of the Most High are referred to as "gods" (lower case "g") in Scripture. Are you questioning the Scripture which, as Jesus said, cannot be broken?

Why you can't follow your honest and logical comparison above?
I believe you will be the one to question the original wordings of the John 1:18, supported by the oldest manuscripts the papyrus 66 and papyrus 75. Jesus as the only-begotten God.
While there are other readings but was not described as the "original words".

Jhn 1:18  R1 No G3762  one G3762  has seen G3708  God G2316  at any G4455  time G4455 ;  R2 the only G3439  begotten G3439  God G2316  who is  R3 in the bosom G2859  of the Father G3962 ,  R4 He has explained G1834  Him.

There is no such thing as "a begotten God"

The word "begotten" means "brought into existence", i.e. in this context CREATED, just as the word "born" does.

Clearly our self-existing God cannot be "born", much less be born as a human son, as God Himself said (Num. 23:19).

Numbers 23:19 God [is] not a man, that He should lie; neither the son of man, that He should repent: hath He said, and shall He not do [it]? or hath He spoken, and shall He not make it good?

So, is it really logical to ignore hundreds of verses to adopt a private interpretation of a single verse, as you are doing? Doesn't logic and Scripture both dictate that there MUST be multiple witnesses that AGREE.

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [Him].

There were thousands upon thousands of people who saw Jesus. How can anyone logically deduce from the above verse (in its original Greek text or translated into English) that God can be both invisible and visible at the same time?

Can you not LOGICALLY see the self-contradictory nature of your private interpretation, and why it makes absolutely no sense whatsoever?

So, you question the original wordings of the Scripture of John 1:18?
As I've said there are various readings of John 1:18 but not described as "original words".
Note: It is supported by the oldest manuscripts the papyrus 66 and papyrus 75.

I just believe yours is your private interpretation, haven't you seen my posted verse?
It has Strong Concordance which proves that renderings are from original Bible words, not my own words.

[A Freeman]

Yes, lower case cat, the son lowercase cat.
Yes, lowercase dog, the son lowercase dog.
Yes, lowercase horse, the son lowercase horse.
Yes, lowercase man, the son lowercase man.
Why uppercase God, the son lowercase god? Why and explain. Why Arians cannot apply same honest logical comparison above?

Why do you feel you need to ask this question please given the context?

There is only one God (upper case G) and the Children of the Most High are referred to as "gods" (lower case "g") in Scripture. Are you questioning the Scripture which, as Jesus said, cannot be broken?

Why you can't follow your honest and logical comparison above?
I believe you will be the one to question the original wordings of the John 1:18, supported by the oldest manuscripts the papyrus 66 and papyrus 75. Jesus as the only-begotten God.
While there are other readings but was not described as the "original words".

Jhn 1:18  R1 No G3762  one G3762  has seen G3708  God G2316  at any G4455  time G4455 ;  R2 the only G3439  begotten G3439  God G2316  who is  R3 in the bosom G2859  of the Father G3962 ,  R4 He has explained G1834  Him.

There is no such thing as "a begotten God"

The word "begotten" means "brought into existence", i.e. in this context CREATED, just as the word "born" does.

Clearly our self-existing God cannot be "born", much less be born as a human son, as God Himself said (Num. 23:19).

Numbers 23:19 God [is] not a man, that He should lie; neither the son of man, that He should repent: hath He said, and shall He not do [it]? or hath He spoken, and shall He not make it good?

So, is it really logical to ignore hundreds of verses to adopt a private interpretation of a single verse, as you are doing? Doesn't logic and Scripture both dictate that there MUST be multiple witnesses that AGREE.

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [Him].

There were thousands upon thousands of people who saw Jesus. How can anyone logically deduce from the above verse (in its original Greek text or translated into English) that God can be both invisible and visible at the same time?

Can you not LOGICALLY see the self-contradictory nature of your private interpretation, and why it makes absolutely no sense whatsoever?

So, you question the original wordings of the Scripture of John 1:18?

No.

As I've said there are various readings of John 1:18 but not described as "original words".
Note: It is supported by the oldest manuscripts the papyrus 66 and papyrus 75.

I just believe yours is your private interpretation, haven't you seen my posted verse?
It has Strong Concordance which proves that renderings are from original Bible words, not my own words.

It's understood you believe that, because you choose to ignore hundreds of verses which clearly tel us that Jesus is/was NOT God, as well as ignoring the rest of John 1:18.

Do YOU deny that Christ is the Son of God? Or that Christ is the firstbegotten (first-created) Son OF God (begotten/created of God)?

Do you really not understand that a son cannot be his own father? Nor can a father be his own son?

Who do you believe Gabriel is please? Or the rest of the archangels?

[Capbook]

Why do you feel you need to ask this question please given the context?

There is only one God (upper case G) and the Children of the Most High are referred to as "gods" (lower case "g") in Scripture. Are you questioning the Scripture which, as Jesus said, cannot be broken?

Why you can't follow your honest and logical comparison above?
I believe you will be the one to question the original wordings of the John 1:18, supported by the oldest manuscripts the papyrus 66 and papyrus 75. Jesus as the only-begotten God.
While there are other readings but was not described as the "original words".

Jhn 1:18  R1 No G3762  one G3762  has seen G3708  God G2316  at any G4455  time G4455 ;  R2 the only G3439  begotten G3439  God G2316  who is  R3 in the bosom G2859  of the Father G3962 ,  R4 He has explained G1834  Him.

There is no such thing as "a begotten God"

The word "begotten" means "brought into existence", i.e. in this context CREATED, just as the word "born" does.

Clearly our self-existing God cannot be "born", much less be born as a human son, as God Himself said (Num. 23:19).

Numbers 23:19 God [is] not a man, that He should lie; neither the son of man, that He should repent: hath He said, and shall He not do [it]? or hath He spoken, and shall He not make it good?

So, is it really logical to ignore hundreds of verses to adopt a private interpretation of a single verse, as you are doing? Doesn't logic and Scripture both dictate that there MUST be multiple witnesses that AGREE.

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [Him].

There were thousands upon thousands of people who saw Jesus. How can anyone logically deduce from the above verse (in its original Greek text or translated into English) that God can be both invisible and visible at the same time?

Can you not LOGICALLY see the self-contradictory nature of your private interpretation, and why it makes absolutely no sense whatsoever?

So, you question the original wordings of the Scripture of John 1:18?

No.

As I've said there are various readings of John 1:18 but not described as "original words".
Note: It is supported by the oldest manuscripts the papyrus 66 and papyrus 75.

I just believe yours is your private interpretation, haven't you seen my posted verse?
It has Strong Concordance which proves that renderings are from original Bible words, not my own words.

It's understood you believe that, because you choose to ignore hundreds of verses which clearly tel us that Jesus is/was NOT God, as well as ignoring the rest of John 1:18.

Do YOU deny that Christ is the Son of God? Or that Christ is the firstbegotten (first-created) Son OF God (begotten/created of God)?

Do you really not understand that a son cannot be his own father? Nor can a father be his own son?

Who do you believe Gabriel is please? Or the rest of the archangels?

What I quote of John 1:18 is supported by manuscripts and described as "original wordings".
Of course, I believe it as it has evidence of supports from oldest manuscripts.

I believe your interpretation of Col 1:15 is out of context as it contradict the next verse 16 and John 1:3.

I do not believe that the Father is Jesus or Jesus is the Father.

I believe Gabriel is an angel.

[A Freeman]

Further, the wording "God the Son" is found NOWHERE in Scripture.

Why? Because God cannot be His own son, nor be divided up into separate parts, nor does God "role play" as both His own Father and His own Son, nor did God create Himself, nor does God send Himself on errands.

And did Jesus ever claim to be God? Again, no.

Psalm 82:6 I have said, Ye [are] gods; and all of you (your spirit-Beings) [are] children OF the Most High.

So we have it straight out of Scripture that a "god" is a "child OF the Most High (God). How obvious does it need to be? Again, Christ made it crystal clear:

John 10:34-36
10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your Law, I said, Ye are gods?
10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the Word of God came, and the Scripture cannot be broken;
10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son OF God?

Who did Jesus pray and to and Who did Jesus obey? Christ's God and Father, Who is GREATER than ALL (The Most High).

John 17:11 And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to Thee. Holy Father, keep through Thine own name those whom Thou hast GIVEN me, that they may be one, as We [are].

John 17:21 That they all may be one; as Thou, Father, [art] in me, and I in Thee, that they also may be one in Us: that the world may believe that Thou hast sent me.

We, like Christ, can be one with God and with each other...through LOVE (Mark 12:29-31). And we, like Christ, should be learning to pray to THE FATHER, as Christ teaches by word and example.

Matthew 6:9-10
6:9 After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be Thy name.
6:10 Thy Kingdom come. Thy Will be done in earth, as [it is] in heaven.

Christ spoke the above words through the mouth of Jesus, while He (Christ) was here on Earth incarnated inside of Jesus. How much clearer can Christ-Jesus make it that He isn't God? Did Jesus ever tell anyone to pray to him? Again, no. Only to Father, which art in heaven.

And with regard to obedience to God alone, we have this too from Christ, straight out of the mouth of Jesus:

John 5:30 I can of mine own self do NOTHING: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the Will of the Father which hath sent me.

John 6:38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the Will of Him that sent me.

Does God not do His own Will?

The firstborn human son is begotten (procreated) of the man who becomes his human dad at the moment of conception. The birth of the firstborn changes that man into a dad, who now has new responsibilities to provide for the son.

From that time onward, all of the subsequent human children are begotten/procreated of the dad, a title the dad acquired with the firstborn.

The same is true of God. God became Father to Christ when He created Christ. And He remains the Father to ALL of His Subsequent Children (e.g. Gabriel, Uriel, Raphael, Raguel, Sarakiel and everyone else (Enoch 20).

If we bear the above in mind (instead of ignoring it), does John 1:18 really tell us something different? Again, no.

From the original Greek (see: https://biblehub.com/text/john/1-18.htm)...

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten [of] God, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [Him].

which is usually (and correctly) translated into English as:

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [Him].

The Firstborn/First-created Son OF God is The Christ, whom God sent. And, as plainly stated, anyone who denies the true Father-Son relationship -- between The One and ONLY True God (Father) and His Christ -- is antichrist.

1 John 2:22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.

[A Freeman]

Colossians 1:12-16
1:12 Giving thanks unto the Father, Which hath made us meet to be sharers of the inheritance of the holy people in Light (sharers with Christ, whom Father appointed heir of all things - Heb. 1:2):
1:13 Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated [us] into The Kingdom of His dear Son:
1:14 In whom we have redemption through his blood, [even] the forgiveness of sins:
1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
1:16 For by Him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in Earth, visible and invisible, whether [they be] thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by Him, and for him:

By definition:

image = likeness
invisible = NOT visible
firstborn = the first to be born, i.e. the first to be brought into existence = THE FIRST CREATED
creature = a creation of the Creator

Verse 16: God created everything by and for Christ, exactly as it says elsewhere in Scripture

John 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

Hebrews 1:1-4
1:1 God, Who at sundry times and in diverse manners spoke in time past unto the fathers by the Prophets,
1:2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [His] Son, whom He hath appointed heir of all things, by whom (Christ) also He (God) made the worlds;
1:3 Who being the brightness of [His] glory, and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by The Word of His power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of His Majesty on high;
1:4 Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance (as the firstborn/first-created) obtained a more excellent name than they.
1:5 For unto which of the angels said He at any time, Thou art My Son, this day have I begotten/created thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to Me a Son?
1:6 And again, when He bringeth in the firstbegotten (first-created) into the world, He saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.

[servant1]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #25]

All protestant translating of NT came from Catholicism translating= altered and error filled.

[Capbook]

[Replying to placebofactor in post #25]

All protestant translating of NT came from Catholicism translating= altered and error filled.

Just like the alteration of the Tetragrammaton used by your church?

[Capbook]

Further, the wording "God the Son" is found NOWHERE in Scripture.

Why? Because God cannot be His own son, nor be divided up into separate parts, nor does God "role play" as both His own Father and His own Son, nor did God create Himself, nor does God send Himself on errands.

And so is "Jesus is not God" not found in the Scriptures.

And did Jesus ever claim to be God? Again, no.

Psalm 82:6 I have said, Ye [are] gods; and all of you (your spirit-Beings) [are] children OF the Most High.

So we have it straight out of Scripture that a "god" is a "child OF the Most High (God). How obvious does it need to be? Again, Christ made it crystal clear:

You haven't answered your own line of argument regarding the lowercase son of cat, dog, man, etc, are lowercase cat, dog, man, and etc. But why the uppercase God had a lowercase "god" for the Son? Why you depart from your pattern of comparison. As Jesus was described by original Bible words as "only-begotten God", that comes from the Scriptures not my own words.

John 10:34-36
10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your Law, I said, Ye are gods?
10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the Word of God came, and the Scripture cannot be broken;
10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son OF God?

There are no contentions to those whom Jesus called as "gods" are really God. Only on Jesus by the Arians.

Who did Jesus pray and to and Who did Jesus obey? Christ's God and Father, Who is GREATER than ALL (The Most High).

John 17:11 And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to Thee. Holy Father, keep through Thine own name those whom Thou hast GIVEN me, that they may be one, as We [are].

John 17:21 That they all may be one; as Thou, Father, [art] in me, and I in Thee, that they also may be one in Us: that the world may believe that Thou hast sent me.

We, like Christ, can be one with God and with each other...through LOVE (Mark 12:29-31). And we, like Christ, should be learning to pray to THE FATHER, as Christ teaches by word and example.

Yes, the Father is greater, high in rank or position and etc than Jesus, that is called "relational subordination." But that does not mean that they are not one in the nature of God. Can Jesus be guilty of blasphemy or was He wrong when He said John 16:15? That sounds equality.

Jhn 16:15 “All things that the Father has are Mine; this is why I said that He takes from Mine and will disclose it to you.

Matthew 6:9-10
6:9 After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be Thy name.
6:10 Thy Kingdom come. Thy Will be done in earth, as [it is] in heaven.

Christ spoke the above words through the mouth of Jesus, while He (Christ) was here on Earth incarnated inside of Jesus. How much clearer can Christ-Jesus make it that He isn't God? Did Jesus ever tell anyone to pray to him? Again, no. Only to Father, which art in heaven.

Jesus emptied the form of God and take the from of a servant in the likeness of man when He was on earth, and gave us an example of how to pray to the Father, it is for us to emulate.

And with regard to obedience to God alone, we have this too from Christ, straight out of the mouth of Jesus:

John 5:30 I can of mine own self do NOTHING: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the Will of the Father which hath sent me.

John 6:38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the Will of Him that sent me.

Does God not do His own Will?

Jesus came to earth to fulfill the prophesied sacrifice, He humbled Himself and obedient to the Father even to the point of death. To shed His blood on Calvary for us to have a hope of reconciliation to the Father in faith. (Phil 2:8)

Php 2:8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death: death on a cross.

The firstborn human son is begotten (procreated) of the man who becomes his human dad at the moment of conception. The birth of the firstborn changes that man into a dad, who now has new responsibilities to provide for the son.

From that time onward, all of the subsequent human children are begotten/procreated of the dad, a title the dad acquired with the firstborn.

The same is true of God. God became Father to Christ when He created Christ. And He remains the Father to ALL of His Subsequent Children (e.g. Gabriel, Uriel, Raphael, Raguel, Sarakiel and everyone else (Enoch 20).

How Jesus became a creation where the Bible clearly states that by Jesus all things were created (Col 1:16).
All things came into being through Jesus.(John 1:3)
And the word "all", in Greek "πᾶς pas" defined by Bible lexicon as the whole, entire etc.
That means that the "the whole, entire" things came into being through Jesus. Nothing is not included when we say whole or entire.
Jesus is not a creation contrary to the Arians belief.

Jhn 1:3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being.

Col 1:16 for by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones, or dominions, or rulers, or authorities—all things have been created through Him and for Him.

G3956 (Mounce)
πᾶς pas
all; in the sg. the whole, entire,

If we bear the above in mind (instead of ignoring it), does John 1:18 really tell us something different? Again, no.

From the original Greek (see: https://biblehub.com/text/john/1-18.htm)...

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten [of] God, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [Him].

which is usually (and correctly) translated into English as:

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [Him].

What I posted John 1:18 was described as from the original wordings of the Bible supported by oldest manuscripts the papyrus 66 and papyrus75, with corresponding Strong Concordance. As I've said to you there are various readings but was not described as from the "original words" of the Bible. Ex. the one you quote above.

The Firstborn/First-created Son OF God is The Christ, whom God sent. And, as plainly stated, anyone who denies the true Father-Son relationship -- between The One and ONLY True God (Father) and His Christ -- is antichrist.

1 John 2:22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.

[/quote]

The word "firstborn", in Greek "πρωτότοκος prōtotokos" in Col 1:15 defined by Bible lexicon as prior generation. Never was it means as "first-created".

The idea of Jesus as a prior generation refers to the theological concept of his pre-existence, meaning he existed before his incarnation as Jesus. Where Jesus is believed to be the eternal Son of God, not just a man, but a divine being who existed before creation.
https://www.google.com/search?q=jesus+a ... s-wiz-serp

G4416a (Mounce)
πρωτότοκος prōtotokos
8x: first-born, Luk 2:7; Heb 11:28; in NT prior in generation, Col 1:15;

[Capbook]

Further, the wording "God the Son" is found NOWHERE in Scripture.

Why? Because God cannot be His own son, nor be divided up into separate parts, nor does God "role play" as both His own Father and His own Son, nor did God create Himself, nor does God send Himself on errands.

And so is "Jesus is not God" not found in the Scriptures.

And did Jesus ever claim to be God? Again, no.

Psalm 82:6 I have said, Ye [are] gods; and all of you (your spirit-Beings) [are] children OF the Most High.

So we have it straight out of Scripture that a "god" is a "child OF the Most High (God). How obvious does it need to be? Again, Christ made it crystal clear:

You haven't answered your own line of argument regarding the lowercase son of cat, dog, man, etc, are lowercase cat, dog, man, and etc. But why the uppercase God had a lowercase "god" for the Son? Why you depart from your pattern of comparison. As Jesus was described by original Bible words as "only-begotten God", that comes from the Scriptures not my own words.

John 10:34-36
10:34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your Law, I said, Ye are gods?
10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the Word of God came, and the Scripture cannot be broken;
10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son OF God?

There are no contentions to those whom Jesus called as "gods" are really God. Only on Jesus by the Arians.

Who did Jesus pray and to and Who did Jesus obey? Christ's God and Father, Who is GREATER than ALL (The Most High).

John 17:11 And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to Thee. Holy Father, keep through Thine own name those whom Thou hast GIVEN me, that they may be one, as We [are].

John 17:21 That they all may be one; as Thou, Father, [art] in me, and I in Thee, that they also may be one in Us: that the world may believe that Thou hast sent me.

We, like Christ, can be one with God and with each other...through LOVE (Mark 12:29-31). And we, like Christ, should be learning to pray to THE FATHER, as Christ teaches by word and example.

Yes, the Father is greater, high in rank or position and etc than Jesus, that is called "relational subordination." But that does not mean that they are not one in the nature of God. Can Jesus be guilty of blasphemy or was He wrong when He said John 16:15? That sounds equality.

Jhn 16:15 “All things that the Father has are Mine; this is why I said that He takes from Mine and will disclose it to you.

Matthew 6:9-10
6:9 After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be Thy name.
6:10 Thy Kingdom come. Thy Will be done in earth, as [it is] in heaven.

Christ spoke the above words through the mouth of Jesus, while He (Christ) was here on Earth incarnated inside of Jesus. How much clearer can Christ-Jesus make it that He isn't God? Did Jesus ever tell anyone to pray to him? Again, no. Only to Father, which art in heaven.

Jesus emptied the form of God and take the from of a servant in the likeness of man when He was on earth, and gave us an example of how to pray to the Father, it is for us to emulate.

And with regard to obedience to God alone, we have this too from Christ, straight out of the mouth of Jesus:

John 5:30 I can of mine own self do NOTHING: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the Will of the Father which hath sent me.

John 6:38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the Will of Him that sent me.

Does God not do His own Will?

Jesus came to earth to fulfill the prophesied sacrifice, He humbled Himself and obedient to the Father even to the point of death. To shed His blood on Calvary for us to have a hope of reconciliation to the Father in faith. (Phil 2:8)

Php 2:8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death: death on a cross.

The firstborn human son is begotten (procreated) of the man who becomes his human dad at the moment of conception. The birth of the firstborn changes that man into a dad, who now has new responsibilities to provide for the son.

From that time onward, all of the subsequent human children are begotten/procreated of the dad, a title the dad acquired with the firstborn.

The same is true of God. God became Father to Christ when He created Christ. And He remains the Father to ALL of His Subsequent Children (e.g. Gabriel, Uriel, Raphael, Raguel, Sarakiel and everyone else (Enoch 20).

How Jesus became a creation where the Bible clearly states that by Jesus all things were created (Col 1:16).
All things came into being through Jesus.(John 1:3)
And the word "all", in Greek "πᾶς pas" defined by Bible lexicon as the whole, entire etc.
That means that the "the whole, entire" things came into being through Jesus. Nothing is not included when we say whole or entire.
Jesus is not a creation contrary to the Arians belief.

Jhn 1:3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him not even one thing came into being that has come into being.

Col 1:16 for by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones, or dominions, or rulers, or authorities—all things have been created through Him and for Him.

G3956 (Mounce)
πᾶς pas
all; in the sg. the whole, entire,

If we bear the above in mind (instead of ignoring it), does John 1:18 really tell us something different? Again, no.

From the original Greek (see: https://biblehub.com/text/john/1-18.htm)...

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten [of] God, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [Him].

which is usually (and correctly) translated into English as:

John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared [Him].

What I posted John 1:18 was described as from the original wordings of the Bible supported by oldest manuscripts the papyrus 66 and papyrus75, with corresponding Strong Concordance. As I've said to you there are various readings but was not described as from the "original words" of the Bible. Ex. the one you quote above.

The Firstborn/First-created Son OF God is The Christ, whom God sent. And, as plainly stated, anyone who denies the true Father-Son relationship -- between The One and ONLY True God (Father) and His Christ -- is antichrist.

1 John 2:22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.

[/quote]

The word "firstborn", in Greek "πρωτότοκος prōtotokos" in Col 1:15 defined by Bible lexicon as prior generation. Never was it means as "first-created".

The idea of Jesus as a prior generation refers to the theological concept of his pre-existence, meaning he existed before his incarnation as Jesus. Where Jesus is believed to be the eternal Son of God, not just a man, but a divine being who existed before creation.
https://www.google.com/search?q=jesus+a ... s-wiz-serp

G4416a (Mounce)
πρωτότοκος prōtotokos
8x: first-born, Luk 2:7; Heb 11:28; in NT prior in generation, Col 1:15;