Jehovah's Witnesses: Worship Jesus! (2 Timothy 4:18)

[Faber]

2 Timothy 4:18
The Lord will rescue me from every evil deed, and will bring me safely to His heavenly kingdom; to Him be the glory forever and ever. Amen. (NASB)

Galatians 1:3-5
(3) Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ,
(4) who gave Himself for our sins so that He might rescue us from this present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father,
(5) to whom be the glory forevermore. Amen. (NASB)


A. The Jehovah's Witnesses teach that the "Lord" in 2 Timothy 4:18 refers to the Lord Jesus.
Insight on the Scriptures: No one took his side in his first defense; nevertheless, Paul was strengthened by the Lord Jesus Christ; he is confident that the Lord will save him for His heavenly Kingdom (4:16-18) (Volume 2, Timothy, Letters to) (See the very last paragraph)
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200004417

B. The Jehovah's Witnesses teach that the "Lord" refers to Jehovah (and Jesus?)
The Watchtower: Recalling that experience must have strengthened Paul, helping him to trust that Jehovah would fortify him to endure his present trials and any future difficulties that might arise. In fact, he immediately went on to say: “The Lord will rescue me from every wicked work.� (2 Tim. 4:18) Yes, Paul had learned that even when human assistance is limited, the help that Jehovah and his Son provide is real! (Always Trust in Jehovah!, April 15, 2015)
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2015286

Three questions:
1. Since according to the first citation the "Lord" refers to the Lord Jesus to whom does the same singular "Lord" refer to in the second citation?

2. Since the "Lord" refers to the Lord Jesus why do the Jehovah's Witnesses forbid worshiping the Lord Jesus when 2 Timothy 4:18 is a doxology?
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2015286

3. Isn't Galatians 1:5 a doxology in which the Father is being worshiped?

[JehovahsWitness]

[Replying to post 1 by Faber]

Jehovah's Witnesses believe the title LORD (Master, Owner) can apply to both Jehovah and Jesus without it making them the same person. Indeed "Lord" can and is, applied to humans (Sarah called Abraham her "Lord"), worldly leaders and even false gods (the name "baal" actually means "lord").

That said, using a bible that has NOT removed the Divine Name helps alleviate reader confusing.




I have addressed this issue before, here is the link to your earlier question, which I answered
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 252#864252



For more on this topic see "related posts" below.

JW

RELATED POSTS


LORD Word Study (greek)
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 178#866178

Who does LORD apply to in the Christians Greek Scriptures?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 727#866727

- Watchtower references (Jam 5:8)
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 339#866339

Which Lord stood by Paul? Jehovah or Jesus (2 Tim 4:18)
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 960#869960

[JehovahsWitness]

3. Isn't Galatians 1:5 a doxology in which the Father is being worshiped?

QUESTION: Is it fitting to give glory to both Jehovah and Jesus?

In the Hebrew Scriptures, the word most often translated “glory� is ka·vohdhʹ (Greek equivalent: doʹxa) basically means that which brings honor to its owner or maker. In scripture, unlike worshipful adoration (which is rightly due only to the Creator) giving glory is can be given to humans, Jesus and/or Almighty God.

Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, edited by G. Kittel, explains: “If in relation to man [ka·vohdhʹ] denotes that which makes him impressive and demands recognition, whether in terms of material possessions or striking [dignity or importance], in relation to God it implies that which makes God impressive to man.� (Translated by G. Bromiley, 1971, Vol. II, p. 238)

So while giving glory to God can be an appropriate part of worship, the act itself of giving glory or praise to someone is not necessarily synonymous with worshipful adoration.

In view of the above, it is indeed entirely appropriate to give glory to Jehovah's firstborn son and the king of the Messianic kingdom Jesus (Compare Joh 11:40-44); Note on one occasion, Jesus prayed: “Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was.� (Joh 17:5) and the bible says that Jehovah “glorified his Servant, Jesus,�* by resurrecting him and bringing him back into heaven. (Ac 3:13-15)

*obviously "giving glory" or "glorifying" someone is not "worshipping" them since the Father glorified Jesus and Almighty God only recieves worship, he does not Himself offer worship.

CONCLUSION: The fact that the bible speaks of both Jehovah and his son Jesus as receiving praise, honor and glory does not indicate they must both be Almighty God or that God is truine in nature. Glory, is something that can be given to humans, to Jesus or to Almighty God without it necessarily being part of worship.

[JehovahsWitness]

“The Lord will rescue me from every wicked work.� (2 Tim. 4:18) Yes, Paul had learned that even when human assistance is limited, the help that Jehovah and his Son provide is real! (Always Trust in Jehovah!, April 15, 2015)
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2015286

Jehovah's Witnesses believe Jesus acts on Jehovah's behalf, executing His commands and ensuring that his (Jehovah's) will be done.

Thus when, for example, the Apostle Paul needed encouragement during his final imprisonment, prior to his exectuion, it was the Lord Jesus that strengthen and encouraged him (2 Tim 4:18). However, Jehovah's Witnesses believe Jesus is only acting on behalf of JEHOVAH. In short, we believe that whether explicitly stated or not, whatever Jesus does he does as God's representative, being the "chief agent" of salvation. So any encouragement that comes from Jesus originates with Jehovah; in that sense they both encouraged Paul during his (Paul's) final hours.

We do not believe that the two (Jesus and his Father Jehovah), working together means they are both Almighty God or that their evident collaboration means God is truine in nature.


JW


Jesus: Masterworker
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 015#864015

Is it fitting to "give glory" to Jesus?
http://debatingchristianity.com/forum/v ... 956#869956

[Faber]

The fact that the doxology concludes with an "Amen" demonstrates the Lord Jesus is properly worshiped

BDAG (3rd Edition): liturgical formula at the end of the liturgy, spoken by the congregation...2 Timothy 4:18 (ἀμήν, page 53)

[2timothy316]

[Replying to post 5 by Faber]

Amen doesn't mean worship.

Amen means, “So be it,� or “surely.� The word comes from the Hebrew root word ʼa·manʹ, which means “to be faithful, trustworthy.� “Amen� was said in agreement to an oath, a prayer, or a statement. It is not only used in worship, as in a prayer. It is used anytime to be in agreement or to state something is trustworthy. In 2 Timothy 4:18 it says, "To him be the glory forever and ever. Amen." Simply meaning that Paul is in agreement that surely all glory should go to Jehovah forever.

I use 'amen' to agree with a prayer or I can use it to agree with a statement. If I or anyone used amen to reply one of my fellow Witnesses' posts, I'm not worshiping them, I'm fully agreeing with them that what they say can be considered trustworthy. In fact if I were to answer one of their posts with the 'amen' the moderators around here would tell me to use the 'like' button rather than just replying 'amen'.

[Faber]

The BDAG (3rd Edition) properly defines it one way while your opinion says something else.

[2timothy316]

The BDAG (3rd Edition) properly defines it one way while your opinion says something else.

Well here is the Strong's Concordance definition where I got it from. So, no it's not my opinion. Or do you not agree with the Strong Concordance in this matter?

http://biblehub.com/greek/281.htm
amén: truly
Original Word: ἀμήν
Part of Speech: Hebrew Form (Indclinable)
Transliteration: amén
Phonetic Spelling: (am-ane')
Short Definition: verily, truly, amen, so let it be
Definition: verily, truly, amen; at the end of sentences may be paraphrased by: So let it be.

/amḗn ("amen"), as an "emphasis marker,"

[Faber]

Strong's does not specify how a word is used while citing specific passages.

Is worship taking place by the use of the "Amen" in Galatians 1:5?

[2timothy316]

Strong's does not specify how a word is used while citing specific passages.

Is worship taking place by the use of the "Amen" in Galatians 1:5?

No. It is being used the same way as in 2 Timothy 4:18. Actually it does cite how a word can be used. Note the bold below.

http://biblehub.com/greek/281.htm

amén: truly
Original Word: ἀμήν
Part of Speech: Hebrew Form (Indclinable)
Transliteration: amén
Phonetic Spelling: (am-ane')
Short Definition: verily, truly, amen, so let it be
Definition: verily, truly, amen; at the end of sentences may be paraphrased by: So let it be.