Was Jesus God In The Flesh?

[HimWithin]

If Jesus was God in the flesh, how could He be tempted by sin?

For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are (Heb 4:15)

If Jesus was God in the flesh, why would He learn to obey?

Although He was a Son, He learned obedience from the things which He suffered. (Heb 5:8)

If Jesus was God in the flesh, how could He have died?

He, in the days of His flesh, offered up both prayers and supplications with loud crying and tears to the One able to save Him from death (Heb 5:7)

If Jesus was God in the flesh, how could He ascend to His God?

"Go to My brethren and say to them, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.'" (Joh 20:17)

If Jesus was God in the flesh, why was His Father the only true God?

"This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent." (Joh 17:3)

[OneJack]

[Replying to OneJack in post #4]

Jesus restrained His power [being God] while He was in the flesh [of the Son of God]

by acting normally as an ordinary man.

Jesus was just acting?

You seem to be saying that Jesus was just pretending to be a man like us. Is that what you mean? Is God a fakir?

Normally, if we were given roles in a stage play, we would have to act exactly as the script tells us to perform the acts needed for our roles. I never said Jesus was pretending to be a man like us; I'm saying that Jesus, being the Almighty God, dwelt in the flesh of the Son of God during His incarnation among His apostles and disciples. Jesus lived and supped with them as an ordinary man, though at times He used His power to perform miracles.

[OneJack]

If Jesus was God in the flesh, how could He be tempted by sin?

Jesus restrained His power [being God] while He was in the flesh [of the Son of God] by acting normally as an ordinary man.

Did Jesus restrain His power and was acting powerless?

Not always, but almost; if not, the Son of God, per se, would not die if Jesus, being the Life and Spirit of and in the Son, did not act as an ordinary, a powerless man in the eyes of the Jews and the Romans during His incarnation.

If Jesus was God in the flesh, why would He learn to obey?

Jesus did not persist in His Godhood while He was in the flesh [of the Son of God]; He lived and supped with His disciples as a normal man.

Did Jesus pause His Godhood?

If pause means restrain, then yes, Jesus [almost] restrained His Godhood for 33 years, more or less, and lived as an ordinary man among His apostles and disciples.

If Jesus was God in the flesh, how could He have died?

Saying Jesus died is a wrong connotation; the Lord Jesus did not [and will never] die because He is the Almighty God, who detached Himself from the bodily flesh of the Son of God, per se; hence, the man who was called the Son of God died in that instant.

Who was the Son of God who died?

The Son of God, per se, who died on the cross was absolutely the son/man who was born of Mary - the physical vessel of the Almighty God [whose name is Jesus or Immanuel] in His incarnation during the apostles' time.

If Jesus was God in the flesh, how could He ascend to His God?

Jesus, while He was in the flesh [of the Son], portrayed the Son, per se, before the eyes of the people to have God over him (the Son) and the one to ascend to the Father in due time.

Was the Son pretending to have a God over him?

Bear in mind that the Son of God, per se, was just the physical vessel of the Almighty God, whose name is Jesus or Immanuel, in His incarnation; hence, the Spirit and Life of and in the Son of God was the Almighty God. The Almighty God, through the Son, made it a point that the man who was born of Mary - the man who was called the Son of God - has God over him always, a declaration without any pretension.

Unknown to the disciples, the Father was the Spirit and Life that was in the flesh [of the Son] and the one who talked to them all the way, but through the Son.

Was Jesus and the Father in the flesh of the Son.

Jesus, being the name of God, is the Father, as the Father is the Almighty God; hence, Jesus is the Almighty God. The Father, whose name is Jesus or Immanuel, was in the flesh of the Son of God, per se, during His (Father's) incarnation among His disciples and apostles.

If Jesus was God in the flesh, why was His Father the only true God?

Jesus is the name of God given [by God] to the Son of God, whom you mistook to be Jesus, per se, which is an absolute error in knowing who Jesus is in His true nature.

Did Jesus give the Son of God His name?

Jesus, the Almighty God, gave His name Jesus or Immanuel of Mighty God or Eternal Father to the Son of God, per se, during His (God's) incarnation.

[1213]

...
Could Jesus be God by virtue of Him being one in union with the fullness of Deity?....

I think disciples of Jesus ("Christians") should also be in union with God, because:

I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, keep them through your name which you have given me, that they may be one, even as we are.
John 17:11
that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us; that the world may be-lieve that you sent me.
John 17:21

And I don't think that means people are then God by virtue, for example because:

This is eternal life, that they should know you, the only true God, and him whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
John 17:3
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Tim. 2:5

[HimWithin]

How can a mere human rise bodily from the dead, go through walls to appear to His disciples and then allow them to touch His body?

He was not raised a mere man, but He died a mere man.

[OneJack]

How can a mere human rise bodily from the dead, go through walls to appear to His disciples and then allow them to touch His body?

He was not raised a mere man, but He died a mere man.

What then was the Son of God, per se, raised to if not a mere man?

[HimWithin]

How can a mere human rise bodily from the dead, go through walls to appear to His disciples and then allow them to touch His body?

He was not raised a mere man, but He died a mere man.

What then was the Son of God, per se, raised to if not a mere man?

"There is one glory of the sun, another glory of the moon, and another glory of the stars; for one star differs from another star in glory. So also is the resurrection of the dead. The body is sown in corruption, it is raised in incorruption. It is sown in dishonor, it is raised in glory. It is sown in weakness, it is raised in power. It is sown a natural body, it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body. And so it is written, “The first man Adam became a living soul.” The last Adam became a life-giving spirit." (1 Cor 15:41-45)

[HimWithin]

...
Could Jesus be God by virtue of Him being one in union with the fullness of Deity?....

I think disciples of Jesus ("Christians") should also be in union with God, because:

I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, keep them through your name which you have given me, that they may be one, even as we are.
John 17:11
that they may all be one; even as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us; that the world may be-lieve that you sent me.
John 17:21

And I don't think that means people are then God by virtue,

Christians are in union with God because we have a measure of God’s divine nature dwelling in us.

“His divine power has given to us all things that pertain to life and godliness…so that through these you may be partakers of the divine nature” (2 Pet 1:3-4)

Jesus is in union with God because He has the fullness of God’s Divine Nature dwelling in Him.

“For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells bodily” (Col 2:9)

It seems to me that for Christians to be united as one in a measure of God’s divine nature would mean that they can be called gods.

Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, “You are gods”’? If He called them gods, to whom the word of God came…do you say of Him…‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’”? (Joh 10:34-36)

Likewise, it seems to me that for Jesus to be united as one in the fullness of God’s Divine Nature would mean that He is God.

“For in Him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell” (Col 1:19-20)

for example because:

This is eternal life, that they should know you, the only true God, and him whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
John 17:3
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
1 Tim. 2:5

It is true that there is only one God and only one true God, and that is the Father.
But it is also true that the fullness of the Father’s Deity is one in union with the Son.
This means that the Son shares, with His Father, in the fullness of His Father’s Divine Nature.

This means that the Son has full access to all of His Father’s divine properties, obtaining all of His Father’s divine qualities, being able to function exactly as His Father does, thereby being equal with His Father in every respect, because they both live as one in the union of the Father’s Divine Nature.

“For I am not alone, but I am with the Father” (Joh 8:15-17)
“That you may know and believe that the Father is in Me, and I in Him.” (Joh 10:37-38)
“I and My Father are one” (Joh 10:30-33)

The Father and Son are one in one Divine Nature, which makes them both one God called Yahweh.
The male and female are one in one human nature, which makes them both one man called Adam.

"In the day that God created man, He made him in the likeness of God. He created them male and female, and blessed them and called their name Adam" (Gen 5:1-2)

[HimWithin]

Did Jesus restrain His power and was acting powerless?
Did Jesus pause His Godhood?

Not always, but almost; if not, the Son of God, per se, would not die if Jesus, being the Life and Spirit of and in the Son, did not act as an ordinary, a powerless man in the eyes of the Jews and the Romans during His incarnation.
If pause means restrain, then yes, Jesus [almost] restrained His Godhood for 33 years, more or less, and lived as an ordinary man among His apostles and disciples.

So Jesus was pretending to be powerless.
Okay.

Who was the Son of God who died?

The Son of God, per se, who died on the cross was absolutely the son/man who was born of Mary - the physical vessel of the Almighty God [whose name is Jesus or Immanuel] in His incarnation during the apostles' time.

But yet Jesus/Immanuel did not die, right?
Because He is Almighty God, right?
And Almighty God cannot die, right?
So only His physical body died, right?
So who was the person who rose from the dead?

Was the Son pretending to have a God over him?

Bear in mind that the Son of God, per se, was just the physical vessel of the Almighty God, whose name is Jesus or Immanuel, in His incarnation; hence, the Spirit and Life of and in the Son of God was the Almighty God. The Almighty God, through the Son, made it a point that the man who was born of Mary - the man who was called the Son of God - has God over him always, a declaration without any pretension.

Interesting.

Was Jesus and the Father in the flesh of the Son.

Jesus, being the name of God, is the Father, as the Father is the Almighty God; hence, Jesus is the Almighty God. The Father, whose name is Jesus or Immanuel, was in the flesh of the Son of God, per se, during His (Father's) incarnation among His disciples and apostles.

Because Jesus and the Father are one, right?

Did Jesus give the Son of God His name?

Jesus, the Almighty God, gave His name Jesus or Immanuel of Mighty God or Eternal Father to the Son of God, per se, during His (God's) incarnation.

Why do you keep using the term “per se”?

[OneJack]

[Replying to HimWithin in post #18]

So Jesus was pretending to be powerless.
Okay.

Jesus lived as a normal man [most of the time] with His apostles and disciples during His incarnation (when He came in the flesh).

But yet Jesus/Immanuel did not die, right?

Absolutely, Jesus did not die.

Because He is Almighty God, right?

Indeed, Jesus is the Almighty God!

And Almighty God cannot die, right?

Absolutely Right

So only His physical body died, right?

The physical body, per se, in which Jesus dwelt died.

So who was the person who rose from the dead?

The person who rose from the dead was specifically the man whom Mary gave birth to, and to whom God decreed that His name, Immanuel or Jesus, be called unto that man's name.

Because Jesus and the Father are one, right?

The appropriate words to say in this case would be, 'Jesus is the name of the Father' or 'Jesus is the Father.'

Why do you keep using the term “per se”?

To give a clear distinction between the phrase 'the Son of God' vis-à-vis the name Jesus, or Immanuel, or Mighty God, or Eternal Father.

[OneJack]

[Replying to HimWithin in post #16]

"There is one glory of the sun, another glory of the moon, and another glory of the stars; for one star differs from another star in glory. So also is the resurrection of the dead. The body is sown in corruption, it is raised in incorruption. It is sown in dishonor, it is raised in glory. It is sown in weakness, it is raised in power. It is sown a natural body, it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.

These things apply to all of us - the physical bodies [which are sown in corruption, dishonor, weakness] - sown as natural bodies - will be raised in due time to spiritual bodies; the saved ones will be with the Lord in Paradise, while the unsaved will be on the planet of Hell, where the gnashing of the teeth is forever.

And so it is written, “The first man Adam became a living soul.” The last Adam became a life-giving spirit." (1 Cor 15:41-45)

We belong to the first man, Adam; hence, we all have sinned and need the Savior of mankind. The last Adam (another created human, second to the original Adam) was the vessel of the Life-Giving Spirit, who dwelt in the last Adam's bodily flesh during God's incarnation among His apostles and disciples, the Almighty God, whose name is Jesus, or Immanuel.